Answer:
BGF and BCF
Step-by-step explanation:
those two triangles have BF as the hypotenuse
Answer:
a solution is 1/2 *tan⁻¹ (2*y) = - tan⁻¹ (x²) + π/4
Step-by-step explanation:
for the equation
(1 + x⁴) dy + x*(1 + 4y²) dx = 0
(1 + x⁴) dy = - x*(1 + 4y²) dx
[1/(1 + 4y²)] dy = [-x/(1 + x⁴)] dx
∫[1/(1 + 4y²)] dy = ∫[-x/(1 + x⁴)] dx
now to solve each integral
I₁= ∫[1/(1 + 4y²)] dy = 1/2 *tan⁻¹ (2*y) + C₁
I₂= ∫[-x/(1 + x⁴)] dx
for u= x² → du=x*dx
I₂= ∫[-x/(1 + x⁴)] dx = -∫[1/(1 + u² )] du = - tan⁻¹ (u) +C₂ = - tan⁻¹ (x²) +C₂
then
1/2 *tan⁻¹ (2*y) = - tan⁻¹ (x²) +C
for y(x=1) = 0
1/2 *tan⁻¹ (2*0) = - tan⁻¹ (1²) +C
since tan⁻¹ (1²) for π/4+ π*N and tan⁻¹ (0) for π*N , we will choose for simplicity N=0 . hen an explicit solution would be
1/2 * 0 = - π/4 + C
C= π/4
therefore
1/2 *tan⁻¹ (2*y) = - tan⁻¹ (x²) + π/4
Answer:
bbbbvhxzjcxhchghghxcfafhfhgvbgfgxhghhfgyfyfggffffffffffff
You are told to ignore the amount of principal paid, so you are apparently to assume the loan amount was for $50 thousand.
a) The old monthly payment was $10.67×50 = $533.50
b) The new monthly payment is $11.72×50 = $586.00
c) The increase in monthly payment is figured in the usual way:
... (new/old -1)×100% = (1.0984-1)×100% = 9.84%
_____
In reality, about 3% of the loan will have been paid at the end of 2 years. Thus, the original loan amount may have been near $51,500. This problem is telling you to ignore the difference.
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
Factor using the perfect square rule.
:)