The correct option for The firm enjoys economies of scope.
economies of scope exist if C(Q1, 0) + C(0, Q2) > C (Q1, Q2) (10 + 5Q1) + (10 + 5Q2) > 10 + 5Q1 + 5Q2 - 0.2Q12Q2.
Economies of scope is an economic theory stating that the average total cost of production decrease as a result of increasing the number of different goods produced. For example, a gas station that sells gasoline can sell soda, milk, baked goods, etc.
Economies of scope is a financial precept wherein a commercial enterprise's unit value to supply a product will decline because the form of its products will increase. In different words, the extra one of kind-but-comparable goods you produce, the lower the total cost to provide each one may be.
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A firm can produce two products with the cost function C(Q1, Q2) = 10 + 5Q1 + 5Q2 - 0.2Q1Q2. The firm enjoys:
A. economies of scale in the two products separately.
B. economies of scope.
C. cost complementarity.
D. economies of scale in the two products separately and cost complementarity.
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Answer:
This error will decrease Howard's inventory by $6,000
Explanation:
Howard's inventory should include:
inventory on hand + goods purchased FOB shipping point + goods sold FOB destination point.
FOB shipping point means that the title of the goods is passed at the moment that they leave the seller's warehouse. FOB destination point means that the title of the goods is passed only after they have been delivered to the buyer's warehouse.
In this case, Howard purchased goods as FOB shipping point, so that means they should have been included in their inventory. Since they weren't, this error will decrease its inventory by $6,000.
Answer:
(2) 4%
Explanation:
The portfolio is considered to be less risky if its volatility is low. The higher standard deviation the more risky is the project. For Duke Energy and Microsoft the investment portfolio required is risk free investment. To calculate the risk free rate we calculate using the formula;
Var Rp = x1 2Var R1 + x2 2Var R2 +2 x1 x2 Corr (R1, R2) SD1 SD2
Var Rp = 0.14 + 0.44 + 2 (1) * (-1) * 6% * 24%
Solving for this we get the risk free investment at 4%.