Use the formula of the future value of annuity ordinary and solve for pmt
First deducted the amount of down payment
184,500−184,500×0.20=147,600
Pmt=147,600÷(((1+0.085
÷12)^(12×10)−1)÷(0.085÷12))
=784.53 per month
Hello,
Here is your answer:
The proper answer to this question is option D.
Here is how:
First solve the equation:
3*1=3
4*2=8
Which means your answer is D.
If you need anymore help feel free to ask me!
Hope this helps!
<h2>Hello my friend.</h2>
The Pi value is approximately equal to 3.14.
<h2>I hope I have helped a lot.</h2>
I belive his answer is wrong B/c the graph does not even start near 310 the first to bars make it to 50 and 150 so even if u add the two together it would only be 200 so, the answer would be B
In order to solve that, let's call 845 100%, as we're solving it terms of 845. 845 is 100%, then it follows that 8.45 is 1%.
Now we can see how many 8.45's go into 608, which comes out to 71.95266...%, which can be rounded nicely to 72%
The million doesn't matter.
