1 pint = 2 cups = 2(8 fluid ounces) = 16 fluid ounces= 16(2 tablespoons)= 32 table spoons.
so, 5 pints= 5*32 tablespoons = 160 tablespoons
Answer:
y = 13x + 86
Step-by-step explanation:
y−8 =13(x+6); distribute the 13
y - 8 = 13x + 78; now add 8 to both sides
y = 13x + 86; this is the slope intercept form
Part A:
To get the interest of 1 year
Multiply 20,000 by 5% or 0.05
You get $1,000
Thats the amount for 1 year, now to get for 4 years, multiply 1,000, by 4
She pays $4,000 in interest
Part B:
If she pays it off in 2 years, instead of 4 years, she will pay an interest of $2,000, divide 4 by 2
Part C:
This is the same as part b, she saves $2,000
Hope this helps
-GoldenWolfX
Answer:
a) see the plots below
b) f(x) is exponential; g(x) is linear (see below for explanation)
c) the function values are never equal
Step-by-step explanation:
a) a graph of the two function values is attached
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b) Adjacent values of f(x) have a common ratio of 3, so f(x) is exponential (with a base of 3). Adjacent values of g(x) have a common difference of 2, so g(x) is linear (with a slope of 2).
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c) At x ≥ 1, the slope of f(x) is greater than the slope of g(x), and the value of f(x) is greater than the value of g(x), so the curves can never cross for x > 1. Similarly, for x ≤ 0, the slope of f(x) is less than the slope of g(x). Once again, f(0) is greater than g(0), so the curves can never cross.
In the region between x=0 and x=1, f(x) remains greater than g(x). The smallest difference is about 0.73, near x = 0.545, where the slopes of the two functions are equal.