Space travel is an example of a rapid skimming strategy.<br><br><br> False<br><br> True

nikolaos is an ordained minister. he moved to indianapolis and lives in the nearby furnished parsonage, which is 1,500 square fe

siniylev [52]

Option D. The way that Nikolaos would be able to determine for the parsonage of the Indianapolis would be: Consult an Indianapolis realtor for a documented quote with comparable listings for the house.

<h3>What is meant by parsonage?</h3>

Old French personage and medieval Latin personagium, both of which imply "home for a person," are the origins of the word "parsonage." A house in the early church was frequently not much more than a priest's place to sleep.

A clergy house is where one or more priests or other religious leaders currently live or previously lived. Such homes may be referred to as manse, parsonage, rectory, or vicarage, among other names.

A recent sale of a property in your neighborhood that is comparable to yours in terms of location, size, condition, and features is known as a "comp," short for "comparable sale."

Comparable (similar) homes have to have equivalent market values, and thus comparable assessed values. Comparing the assessment of your home to the assessments of other comparable homes is one approach to determine whether it has been done fairly or uniformly.

Read more on realtors here:

brainly.com/question/29452584

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Nikolaos is an ordained minister. He moved to Indianapolis and lives in the nearby furnished parsonage, which is 1,500 square feet. His previous role was in Washington, D.C.; the fair rental value (FRV) of his parsonage (1,800 square feet) in Washington was $18,000/year.

How should he determine FRV for the Indianapolis parsonage?

Use the same FRV as the Washington, D.C. parsonage.

Reduce the Washington FRV by the size ratio of the new parsonage to the Washington home.

Estimate FRV based on other properties available in the area.

Consult an Indianapolis realtor for a documented quote with comparable listings for the house.

6 0

10 months ago

VI. Here we consider the paradox of saving one last time in the context of the AS-AD model. Suppose the economy begins with outp

Nonamiya [84]

Answer:

The solution to this question can be defined as follows:

Explanation:

In point a:

When consumer interest decreases, => consumers begin and save less and more, => MPC decreases; => the "IS" curve becomes flatter; => "IS" turns inside. Currently, 'AD' shows together all the goods and financial sector, => as the 'IS' curve adjusts inside the industry, => the 'AD' would also change to the left.

In point b:

Take into account the SR models of "IS-LM" and "AD-AS."

Therefore there is the case of a full job only at the beginning; => its optimum between "IS1" and "LM" in the "IS-LM" model; as well as the main equilibrium among "AD1" and "AS" in the "AD-AS" model "E1'," => the original equilibrium among "Y=Yf," "r=r1" and "P=P1." That now the consumer is reducing the confidence, => the 'IS' curve becomes shifting IMEI 'IS2,' => provided the 'LM' curve, that new balance is 'E2.' That's why the price in the SR is calculated, the AS will change =>, however, the AD also will shift the "AD2" side and "E2'" will become the equilibrium point in the "AD-AS" system, "r=r2 <r1" and "P=P1" throughout the new "Y=Y2 <Yf" balance.

Please find the graph file in the attachment.

6 0

2 years ago

The marginal product of labor in the production of computer chips is 3030 chips per hour. The marginal rate of technical substit

fredd [130]

Answer:

150

Explanation:

As we know that

The marginal rate of technical substitution (MRTS) = Marginal product of labor ÷ Marginal product of capital

where,

The marginal rate of technical substitution (MRTS) = 0.20

And, the marginal product of labor is 30 chips per hour

So, the marginal product of capital is

= 30 chips per hour ÷ 0.20

= 150

The marginal rate of technical substitution (MRTS) shows a relationship between the marginal product of labor and the marginal product of capital

5 0

2 years ago

Use the information in the chart to calculate the real exchange rate between the U.S. dollar and the Indian rupee. Round to the

JulsSmile [24]

Answer: 52.51 rupees/dollar

Explanation:

The real exchange rate attempts to account inflation in the countries being compared by using prices in the exchange rate.

The formula for calculating it is;

Real exchange rate = Nominal exchange rate *(Price index of domestic country/Price index of foreign country)

Real exchange rate in 2014 = 57*(99.5/108)

= 52.51 rupees/dollar

3 0

2 years ago

When does a payday loan typically mature?

Rama09 [41]

Answer:

After the borrower's next check.

Explanation:

6 0

2 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Space travel is an example of a rapid skimming strategy. False True