Answer:
The correct answer is (C) straight variable cost assumptions.
Explanation:
If the total cost increases with small increases in activity, it may be referred to as a step-variable cost.
Answer:
C. By realizing gains through increase in share price and cash divideneds.
Explanation:
For most corporations, the management must strive to ensure the firm is doing well in the market space. Once a company is doing well, it will affect its share price positively on the stock exchange.
An increase in the share price of fim is a gain to the firm and its corporate owners. I.e sharedholders. This means that the value of their investment in the firm has appreciated.
Furthermore, the firm must try to make profit which is one of the reason of being in business. A firm that is making profit will be able to declare same at the end of the financial period, hence corporate holders(shareholders) would be have part in profit declaration through dividened.
Answer:
C
Explanation:
Job 1
Annual Income+ Benefits- (annual housing & utility cost)
78,000+4,000-( 1,350*12)= 65,800
Job 2
Annual Income+ Benefits- (annual housing & utility cost)
100,000+2,500-( 3,150*12)= 64,700
Therefore, job 1 is a better choice
Answer: Modern portfolio theory takes this idea even further. It suggests that combining a stock portfolio that sits on the efficient frontier with a risk-free asset, the purchase of which is funded by borrowing, can actually increase returns beyond the efficient frontier.
Risk premium is defined as excess return over risk free rate by taking extra risk. A risk-free asset has zero risk, so risk premium on these assets is zero. As risk level of investment increases, risk premium on investment also increases.
The market risk premium is the difference between the expected return on a market portfolio and the risk-free rate. The market risk premium is equal to the slope of the security market line (SML), a graphical representation of the capital asset pricing model (CAPM). CAPM measures required rate of return on equity investments, and it is an important element of modern portfolio theory and discounted cash flow valuation.
Explanation:
So i have an undisclosed amount of candy with me and i decide one day to give it to you, only catch is that i will give it to you in instalments or piece by piece starting from tomorrow all thru until infinity (or when either of us dies). now i don't have an infinite supply of candy but I'm going to give this to you in parts for an infinite amount of time. from this we know that anything finite divided by infinity is zero. so unfortunately you'll be getting negligible amounts of candy just like ysla will get negligible sums of money from mr. sneaky silva.
if mr. silva keeps the balance in his account and it accrues interest over time, EVEN then it doesn't beat annuity for an infinite amount of time. so max is 0.
