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2 years ago

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Which of these events explains the presence of the volcano?

2 answers:

poizon [28]2 years ago

8 0

Answer:

Magma from Venus's mantle erupted as lava.

Explanation:

I think option C is correct because magma or lava is a molten or semi-molten material that is found under the surface of planet and volcano is the only source through which this molten material can come on the surface. For example, magma beneath the earth's surface come out through the vent of volcanoes present on earth's surface such as Mount Fuji, Barren island, etc. that's the reason why presence of magma over Venus's surface can explain the presence of volcanoes on the planet.

kenny6666 [7]2 years ago

5 0

I would say the answer is C

hope this helps :)

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Calculate the mass defect for the formation of phosphorus-31. The mass of a phosphorus-31 nucleus is 30.973765 amu. The masses o

Nata [24]

<u>Answer:</u> The mass defect for the formation of phosphorus-31 is 0.27399

<u>Explanation:</u>

Mass defect is defined as the difference in the mass of an isotope and its mass number.

The equation used to calculate mass defect follows:

$\Delta m=[(n_p\times m_p)+(n_n\times m_n)]-M$

where,

$n_p$ = number of protons

$m_p$ = mass of one proton

$n_n$ = number of neutrons

$m_n$ = mass of one neutron

M = mass number of element

We are given:

An isotope of phosphorus which is $_{15}^{31}\textrm{P}$

Number of protons = atomic number = 15

Number of neutrons = Mass number - atomic number = 31 - 15 = 16

Mass of proton = 1.00728 amu

Mass of neutron = 1.00866 amu

Mass number of phosphorus = 30.973765 amu

Putting values in above equation, we get:

$\Delta m=[(15\times 1.00728)+(16\times 1.00866)]-30.973765\\\\\Delta m=0.27399$

Hence, the mass defect for the formation of phosphorus-31 is 0.27399

8 0

2 years ago

Bess [88]

Answer:

Use the formula PV=nRT to get the temperature

7 0

1 year ago

When stress is added to plates they can diverge, converge, or slip past one another True or False

zmey [24]

The answer is True i believe

5 0

2 years ago

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attashe74 [19]

D I believe. Correct me if I’m wrong.

4 0

1 year ago

Read 2 more answers

Convert 0.00200 g into Mg and answer in scientific notation:

Masja [62]

Answer: $2.00x10^{2}$

Explanation: 1 gram is equal to 1000 Milligrams so

$0.00200g=\frac{1000mg}{1g}$

Since you go straight across its just multiplication so 0.00200x1000=200mg

To answer it in scientific notation it should just be $2.00x10^{2}$ mg

5 0

1 year ago