Answer:
your answer is proably 15 i dont really know
Step-by-step explanation:
A = 1 and 8
B = 2 and 4
C = 2 and 7
I’m pretty sure this is right? I’m still learning too :p
For 1 play, the chance of gaining $8 is 4/38, while the chance of losing the $1 is 34/38. Therefore, the expected value is ($8)(4/38) + ($-1)(34/38) = $(-1/19). Over 50 plays, which are mutually independent of each other, we multiply the number of plays by the expected value to get $(-50/19) = $-2.63.
<span />
Answer:
What is the constant variation of Y =- 2 3x?
The constant of variation, k , is 23 .
What is the constant variation of Y 1 2x?
The constant of variation, k , is 12 .
Step-by-step explanation:
yeet yeet yeet