Answer:
the y intercept is 0
Step-by-step explanation:
y=5x
there is a 0 as y inter
Answer:
86%
Step-by-step explanation:
Let g represent the mean mark for the 10 girls in the class. Then the mean mark for the class was ...
10g +20(62%) = 30(70%)
g = 3(.7) -2(.62) . . . . . . . . . divide by 10 and subtract 2(.62)
g = .86 = 86%
The mean mark for girls was 86%.
_____
You can do this in your head if you consider it in terms of deviations from the mean. The second equation above can be rewritten and factored as ...
g = 70% +2(70% -62%)
That is, because there are 2 boys for every girl, the girl's score is above the mean by an amount that is 2 times the amount that the boy's score is below the mean. The boys' score is below by 8%, so the girls' score is above by 16%, so is 86%.
Answer:
Not sure if this is correct but I hope this helps :)
Answer:
It will be worth $1732.30.
Step-by-step explanation:
After 1 year : 6000 x .78 = 4680
2 yr - 4680 x .78 = 3650.4
3 yr - 3650.4 x .78 = 2847.312
4 yr - 2847.312 x .78 = 2220.90336
5 yr - 2220.90336 x .78 = 1732.304621
1732.30
I think this is what it was asking
