<span>The answer is that the fraction of 1/2 pint is 1 cup. To solve this you must know the equivalence between pints and cups, and use the notion of proportions. Two cups equal one pint. Then you can state this proportion: 1 pint / 2 cups = x pint / 1 cup. When you solve for x you get: x = 1/2. Which means that 1 cup is 1/2 of 1 pint. </span>
Answer:
0.444... (or 44.44...%)
Step-by-step explanation:
The experimental probability is the probability of an event actually happening. The experimental probability of a man having a beard here is 44.444...% (8/18).
Answer:
1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 9, 12, 18, 36
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
The inequality 2.50x>40.00 represents the number of lunches needed to be purchased for the monthly lunch pass to be a better deal.
Step-by-step explanation:
Given that:
Cost of each lunch = $2.50
Cost of monthly lunch pass = $40.00
Number of lunches = x
For making the monthly pass a better deal, the cost of lunches should be greater than the cost of monthly lunches, therefore
Cost of lunch * Number of lunches > Cost of monthly lunch pass
2.50x > 40.00
Hence,
The inequality 2.50x>40.00 represents the number of lunches needed to be purchased for the monthly lunch pass to be a better deal.
