Recall your d = rt, distance = rate * time
so... one train goes west and the goes the opposite way... alrite... so... notice, by the time 338 miles have been covered by both, it will have been "t" hours, and whatever "t" is, is the same amount of time the westbound train has been running as well as the eastbound train has been running.
now, let's say, since by "t" hours they've covered 338 altogether, so, if the westbound train has covered say "d" miles, then the eastbound train would have covered the slack from 338 and d, that is, "338 - d".
so, 2hours and 36 minutes.
[see picture link]Area of part 1:A1=base*height/2=(8+2)*(8-2-2-1)/2=10*3/2=15 ft^2Area of part 2:A2=length*width=(8+2)*1=10 ft2Area of part 3:A3=length*width=8*2=16 ft2
Picture: https://us-static.z-dn.net/files/d30/9033549987fa60cf57fe05f71424f322.gif
65
40
75
Mark brainliest please
Answer:
The experimental probability is 1/6
Step-by-step explanation:
WIN = 8/48
= 1/6 or 0.1667 = 16.67% chance of winning
LOSE = 40/48
= 5/6 or 0.8333 = 83.33% chance of losing.
I hope this helps. ;)