Let's examine the given function first:
f(x) = x^2 + 1 is the same as f(x) = 1(x-0)^2 + 1.
The vertex of the graph of this function is at (0, 1).
Let x=0 to find the y-intercept: f(0)=0^2+1 = 1; y-int. is at (0,1) (which happens to be the vertex also)
Comparing f(x) = x^2 + 1 to y = x^2, we see that the only difference is that f(x) has a vertical offset of 1. So: Graph y=x^2. Then translate the whole graph UP by 1 unit. That's it. Note (again) that the vertex will be at (0,1), and (0,1) is also the y-intercept.
Answer:
It makes sense to me but I don't know if anyone else agrees
Step-by-step explanation:
The comparison of the lengths of the sides based on the angles are given
by sine rule.
The lengths of the sides from greatest to least are;
Reasons:
The given parameters are;
∠A = 78°, ∠B = 56°, ∠C = 46°
By sine rule, we have;
Given that, sin(46°) ≈ 0.719, sin(56°) ≈ 0.829, sin(78°) ≈ 0.978, we have;
sin(78°) > sin(56°) > sin(46°)
Therefore, applying equal proportions of similar ratios, we have;
<u>BC > AC > AB</u>
Learn more about sine rule here:
brainly.com/question/7591047
We have given
hypotenuse=<span>6√2
let us suppose leg =a
using Pythagorean theorem
a^2+a^2=(</span><span>6√2)^2
</span>2a^2=36*2
diving by 2 on both sides
a^2=36
taking square root on both sides
√a^2 =<span>√36
a=6
therefore
</span><span>the leg of each isosceles right triangle is 6</span>
