Work out the value of 10²-4³ give ypur answer as a power of 6

Mathematics

1 answer:

Alex17521 [72]2 years ago

4 0

Answer: 36

Step-by-step explanation: 10^2 is 100 and 4^3 is 64, and 100-64=36

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The radius of a circle is 4 1/2 inches. What is the circles circumference in terms of 3.14 (pie)

DerKrebs [107]

The circumference of a circle can be found using the equation 2 π r

(2)(3.14)(4.5) = 28.26 (or 28 13/50 if you need it in fractions)

3 0

2 years ago

9/17 15/34 6/17 9/34 geometric sequence?

zysi [14]

In a geometric sequence each number after the first is found by multiplying the previous number by a fixed number called the common ratio.

In an arithmetic sequence, each term is equal to the previous term plus or minus a constant called the common difference.

In your problem we have a sequence of numbers that appears to be decreasing in value, but on the surface it doesn't appear to be by any constant number... but if you look closely, the denominator 34 is exactly twice the other denominator 17. This would lead me to look at a common denominator to see if anything takes shape...

9/17 = 18/34
15/34
6/17 = 12/34
9/34

Now we see that each number is the previous number minus 3/34, so we have a common difference of 3/34.

This would match the definition of an arithmetic sequence and NOT a geometric sequence.

6 0

2 years ago

You take a quiz with 6 multiple choice questions. After you studied your estimated that you would have about an 80 % chance of g

Arada [10]

Answer:

1.15%

Step-by-step explanation:

To get the probability of m independent events you multiply the individual probability of each event. In this case we have m independent events, each one with the same probability, therefore:

$p^{m}$

$0.8^{20} = 1.15\%$

This is a particlar scenario of binomial distribution problem. So the binomial distribution questions are about the number of success of m independent events, where every individual event has the same p probability. In the question we have 20 events and each event has a probability of 80%. The binomial distribution formula is:

$\binom{n}{k} * p^{k} * (1-p)^{n-k}$

n is the number of events

k is the number of success

p is the probability of each individual event

$\binom{n}{k}$ is the binomial coefficient

the binomial coefficient allows to find the subsets of k elements in a set of n elements. In this case there is only one subset possible since the only way to get 20 of 20 correct questions is to getting right all questions (for getting 19 of 20 questions there are many ways, for example getting the first question wrong and all the other questions right, or getting second questions wrong and all the other questions right, etc).

$\binom{n}{k} = \frac{n!}{k!(n-k)!}$