Answer:
a. $295.81
Explanation:
Total market value = (310 * 10.2) + (260 * 20.4)
Total market value = 3,162 + 5,304
Total market value = 8466
Joint cost allocated to L on basis of value
= [ (310 * 10.2) / 8,466] * 792
= (3,162 / 8,466) * 792
= $295.81
Answer:
D. Original cost.
Explanation:
As we know that the inventory should be valued at lower of cost or market value. Also , the market value is the middle amount among the replacement cost, net realizable value, net realizable value - normal profit margin
It can be the replacement cost or net realizable value. We don't have an idea which one is the middle amount
Also, if the original cost is less than the market cost so we assume that the inventory should be valued at original cost
The waiting time will be 30 minutes because 30 minutes at $8 per hour adds $4 to the price. Therefore, making the full price equal to $5 for each buyer clears the market.
<h3>What is the price ceiling?</h3>
A price ceiling is a price control mechanism by the government to intervene in the market forces of demand and supply by setting a maximum price.
While price ceilings are imposed to make prices low for consumers, it may cause shortages in the quantities supplied.
Thus, the waiting time will be 30 minutes because 30 minutes at $8 per hour adds $4 to the price.
Learn more about price ceilings at brainly.com/question/4120465
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Answer:
$2.8 divdends per share
Explanation:
$56 market price
Rate of return 10%
The gain for an investment in stocks is:
In this case we are told that this is distribute evenly, this means:
dividends paid = market price gain
So dividends yield 5% and market price yields another 5% to achieve the 10%
So currently $56 market price x 0.05% = $2.8 divdends per share
A i think the answer is a correct me if wrong plz