2(n - 1) + 4n = 2(3n - 1)
2n - 2 + 4n = 6n -2
6n - 2 = 6n - 2 (equal)
6n - 6n = 2 - 2
0 = 0
whatever value you put into the place of n, you'll get 0 = 0
Answer:
15
Step-by-step explanation:
The variance of the binomial distribution of the number of households with landline service is 2.
<h3>What is the binomial probability distribution?</h3>
It is the probability of <u>exactly x successes on n repeated trials, with p probability</u> of a success on each trial.
The variance of the distribution is given by:
V(X) = np(1 - p)
In this problem, the parameters are given as follows:
n = 8, p = 0.504.
Hence the variance is given by:
V(X) = 8 x 0.504 x 0.496 = 2.
More can be learned about the binomial distribution at brainly.com/question/24863377
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Answer:
I'm not sure but I think it is b
For the first question, the chance of rolling a six is a 1/6 chance because there is one six and six different sides that could be rolled. As a percent, it would be 16.6 %. The probability of rolling an odd number on the second roll would be a 3/6 chance, which as a percent is 50 %. For the second question, both probabilities are 33 % because in both instances you are drawing three cards from nine total, so it would be 3/9. For the third question, the probability of drawing a blue marble is 3/5, because there are three blue marbles and five total marbles. As a percent, this is 60 %. Following this up with a green marble would be 2/4, because there are now 2 green marbles and four total marbles. One of the marbles was not replaced, so we have one less marble. 2/4 as a percent is 50%.
