If one quart is the same amount as 2 pints, how many are in 8 quearts?
1 answer:
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Answer: a) 0.2222, b) 0.3292, c) 0.1111
Step-by-step explanation:
Since we have given that
Let the probability of getting head be p.
Since, its head is twice as likely to occur as its tail.
a)If the coin is flipped 3 times, what is the probability of getting exactly 1 head?
So, here, n = 3
Now,
b)If the coin is flipped 5 times, what is the probability of getting exactly 2 tails?
2 tails means 3 heads.
So, it becomes,
c)If the coin is flipped 4 times, what is the probability of getting at least 3 tails?
Hence, a) 0.2222, b) 0.3292, c) 0.1111
Answer:
a₄=8n+1= -39.
Step-by-step explanation:
1) if a₁=3n; a₃=5n-6 and a₅=11n+8, then it is possible to calculate the difference according to 0.5(a₅-a₃)=0.5(a₃-a₁). Then
2) 0.5(11n+8-5n+6)=0.5(5n-6-3n); ⇔ 6n+14=2n-6; ⇔ n= -5.
3) if n=-5, then the 4th term is:
or a₄=-39.