It would be 49,009 because LA of a cone is height (50) times the radius (120) and that equals about 49,009.
Answer:
the probability is 2/9
Step-by-step explanation:
Assuming the coins are randomly selected, the probability of pulling a dime first is the number of dimes (4) divided by the total number of coins (10).
p(dime first) = 4/10 = 2/5
Then, having drawn a dime, there are 9 coins left, of which 5 are nickels. The probability of randomly choosing a nickel is 5/9.
The joint probability of these two events occurring sequentially is the product of their probabilities:
p(dime then nickel) = (2/5)×(5/9) = 2/9
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<em>Alternate solution</em>
You can go at this another way. You can list all the pairs of coins that can be drawn. There are 90 of them: 10 first coins and, for each of those, 9 coins that can be chosen second. Of these 90 possibilities, there are 4 dimes that can be chosen first, and 5 nickels that can be chosen second, for a total of 20 possible dime-nickel choices out of the 90 total possible outcomes.
p(dime/nickel) = 20/90 = 2/9
You need to move the decimal point to be at 1.
Since this is a decimal, the power will be negative.
I had to move the decimal 6 places.
So,
1^-6
I hope this helps!
~kaikers
They are inverses if f( (g(x)) = x
f((g(x)) = (1/2) (2x + 4) - 2 = x + 2 - 2 = x
so this proves that g(x) is the inverse of f(x)
the other inverse g((f(x)) should also be = x
