Answer:
the answer is she had $4.40 left.
Step-by-step explanation:
1) 40x1.50=<u>60</u> 2) 40x0.89= <u>35.6</u> 3) 60+35.6= <u>95.6</u> 4) 100- 95.6= <u>$4.4</u> I hope this helps if not sorry. :)
The reason the "+ C" is not needed in the antiderivative when evaluating a definite integral is; The C's cancel each other out as desired.
<h3>How to represent Integrals?</h3>
Let us say we want to estimate the definite integral;
I =
Now, for any C, f(x) + C is an antiderivative of f′(x).
From fundamental theorem of Calculus, we can say that;
where Ф(x) is any antiderivative of f'(x). Thus, Ф(x) = f(x) + C would not work because the C's will cancel each other.
Read more about Integrals at; brainly.com/question/22008756
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-- The first urn has 9 balls in it all together, and 2 of them are white.
If you don't peek, then the prob of pulling out a white ball is 2/9 .
-- The second urn has 13 balls in it all together, and 3 of them are white.
If you don't peek, then the prob of pulling out a white ball is 3/13 .
-- The probability of being successful BOTH times is
(2/9) x (3/13) = ( 6/117 ) = about 0.0513 or 5.13% (rounded)
Yes you did the equation on this page correctly.
It’s -9 because when multiplied it’s about -9