Answer:
S/N ACCOUNT DEBIT CREDIT
1 Equipment $22,000
Cash $22,000
Being payment for new component expected to increase the
equipment’s productivity by 10% a year
2. Equipment Repairs expenses $6,250
Cash $6,250
Being payment for equipment repair
3. Equipment $14,870
Cash $14,870
Being payment for equipment repair to prolong the useful life
the asset
Explanation:
The initial cost incurred in acquiring an asset is debited to asset account, subsequently every other cost spent on the assets are either expenses against the earning of that period or expensed over many years over the useful life of the asset.
Capitalization is the recognition of an expense as an asset in the balance sheet rather than expenses in the income statement.
The payment of $22,000 paid for the equipment productivity must be capitalized, that is added to the cost of the asset because it is a cost that is expected to increase the equipment’s productivity by 10% a year.
The $6,250 paid for normal repair is a revenue items which is to be expensed against the earning of that period.
The $14,870 paid for repairs which will increase the useful life of the equipment from four to five years is a capital expenditure which should capitalized, that is added to the cost of the asset.
Answer:accrual basis
Explanation: the need the truth on the accounting princess so it has to be to accrual basis
Answer: 14.84%
Explanation:
To calculate the rate of return the investors received we will do a simple return formula to find out by how much, in terms of the Opening NAV, the fund has increased.
To find out how much the fund has increased by we can add up all the figures then deduct the opening balance.
= 39.71 + 0.64 + 1.13 - 36.12
= $5.36
$5.36 is the how much the fund has increased by.
Expressing it in percentage of the opening NAV per share we have,
= 5.36/36.12
= 0.14839424141
= 14.84%
14.84% is the rate of return that an investor received on the Yachtsman Fund in 2016.
Answer:
Beginning RE 708,900
prior period adjustment <u> 89,470 </u>
adjusted beginning RE 798,370
net income 1,663,000
cash dividends <u> (77,800) </u>
ending RE 2,383,570
Explanation:
The amend of the mistake is done to adjust the beginning retained earnings as it didn't occur in the current accounting cycle.
We have to added as it was posted as an expense something it wasnt Thus, our expense were overstated making a lower net income
then, we proceed normally by adding the net income and decreasing the cash dividends paid to arrive to ending RE
Answer:
Traditional Stage
Explanation:
In the traditional stage, most of the occupation of the population is always agriculture, the people are over reliant on the finished goods of other countries because of their lower wealth and most of the population is living in the rural areas, which is the case here. As it seems that the country is struggling to achieve a take-off stage because it is trying to attract foreign investment (An American company has invested in Oil reserves extraction), so we can say that it is still in the traditional stage because it hasn't increased its home demand for technology, infrastructure development, production increases, greater trade with other countries, etc which are the characteristics of the take-off stage.
