Answer:
The alignment of numbers in the first part of the question is off. However, you solve this question as shown below. The correct answer is C. $1,124.
Explanation:
This is a one-time cashflow type of question where the principal amount is invested once and no other addition is made to the account. You use the future value formula to solve the result of the compounding effect at year 3.
FV formula;
FV = PV(1+r)^n
PV = 800
discount rate; r = 12% or 0.12
total duration of investment; n = 3
therefore; FV = 800(1+0.12)^3
FV = 800 * 1.404928
FV = 1123.94
To the nearest whole dollar, the amount will grow to $1,124
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Answer:
The depreciation expense is $5638.46 and the Addition to retained earnings is 4865
Explanation:
Solution
Given that:
Sales = $95805
Less: Costs = $75885
Less depreciation expense ($95805 - $75,885 - 14281.54) = $5638.46
EBIT (12161.54 + 2120) = 14281.54
Less: Interest expense =2120
EBT (100%)(7905/0.65) = 12161.54
Less: tax at 35%(12161.54*35%) =4256.54
The Net income(65%) = 7905
The Less:dividends = 3040
Addition to retained earnings =4865