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2 years ago

Determine the degree of the following polynomial: - 4x + 10

Mathematics

1 answer:

lora16 [44]2 years ago

5 0

Answer:

yeah it si correct

Step-by-step explanation:

4x-5x²+6x³/2x=4x-5x²+3x²=4x-2x²

therefore the degree of the following polynomial is 2

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For a moving object, the force acting on the object varies directly with the object's acceleration. When a force of 18 N acts on

inysia [295]

Answer: $F=15N$

Step-by-step explanation:

1. You know that the force acting on the object varies directly with the object's acceleration. Then, by definition, you have:

$F=ka$

Where $F$ is the force acting on the object, $a$ is the object's acceleration and $k$ is the constant of proportionality.

2. Keeping this on mind, you can calculate the constant of proportionality by substituting $F=18$ and $a=6$ into the equation and solving for $k$ :

$18=k6\\k=\frac{18}{6}\\k=3$

3. Now, you can calculate the force when the acceleration of the object becomes 5 m/s², as following:

$F=3(5)\\F=15$

3. The result is:

$F=15N$

7 0

2 years ago

Explain why each of the following integrals is improper. (a) 4 x x − 3 dx 3 Since the integral has an infinite interval of integ

erma4kov [3.2K]

Answer:

Since the integral has an infinite discontinuity, it is a Type 2 improper integral

Since the integral has an infinite interval of integration, it is a Type 1 improper integral

Since the integral has an infinite discontinuity, it is a Type 2 improper integral

Step-by-step explanation:

Considering a

$\int\limits^4_3 {\frac{x}{x- 3} } \, dx$

Looking at this we that at x = 3 this integral will be infinitely discontinuous

Considering b

$\int\limits^{\infty}_0 {\frac{1}{1 + x^3} } \, dx$

Looking at this integral we see that the interval is between $0 \ and \ \infty$ which means that the integral has an infinite interval of integration , hence it is a Type 1 improper integral

Considering c

$\int\limits^{\infty}_{- \infty} {x^2 e^{-x^2}} \, dx$

Looking at this integral we see that the interval is between $-\infty \ and \ \infty$ which means that the integral has an infinite interval of integration , hence it is a Type 1 improper integral

Considering d

$\int\limits^{\frac{\pi}{4} }_0 {cot (x)} \, dx$

Looking at the integral we see that at x = 0 cot (0) will be infinity hence the integral has an infinite discontinuity , so it is a Type 2 improper integral

7 0

2 years ago

Joey is standing on a diving board that is 5.6 feet above sea level. Joey dives into the water to a depth of -8.6 feet below sea

pashok25 [27]

Answer:

5.6 - (-8.6)

Step-by-step explanation:

6 0

2 years ago

Does square root of 162 = square root of 81 and square root of 81 added

madam [21]

No.
.. √162 = (√2)*(√81)
.. √81 +√81 = 2√81 = √324

Square root is a non-linear function. sqrt(a +b) ≠ sqrt(a) +sqrt(b)