5,000,000 because that is half of 10,000,000
Answer:
Financial manager sounds more professional.
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
Use the basic simple interest formula:
P * r * t = I and put the info into a table with those variables along the top, formig the columns we need:
P * r * t = I
Acct 1
Acct 2
If we have a total of 1500 to split up between 2 accounts, we put x amount of money into one and then have 1500-x left to put into the other. We will fill those in along with the interest rates in decimal form and the time of 1 year:
P * r * t = I
Acct 1 x .04 1
Acct 2 1500-x .05 1
Looking at the formula we are told that Prt = I, so we will multiply P times r times t and fill in the I column:
P * r * t - I
Acct 1 x .04 1 .04x
Acct 2 1500-x .05 1 .05(1500-x)
The total Interest earned by the addition of the interest earned from both accounts is 69.50. So we add the interest column together and set it equal to 69.50:
.04x + .05(1500 - x) = 69.50 and
.04x + 75 - .05x = 69.50 and
-.01x = -5.5 so
x = 550
That's how much money is in the account earning 4% interest.
If 
is the cumulative distribution function for 
, then
Then the probability density function for is 
:
The 
th moment of is
![E[Y^n]=\displaystyle\int_{-\infty}^\infty y^nf_Y(y)\,\mathrm dy=\frac1{\sqrt{2\pi}}\int_0^\infty y^{n-1}e^{-\frac12(\ln y)^2}\,\mathrm dy](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=E%5BY%5En%5D%3D%5Cdisplaystyle%5Cint_%7B-%5Cinfty%7D%5E%5Cinfty%20y%5Enf_Y%28y%29%5C%2C%5Cmathrm%20dy%3D%5Cfrac1%7B%5Csqrt%7B2%5Cpi%7D%7D%5Cint_0%5E%5Cinfty%20y%5E%7Bn-1%7De%5E%7B-%5Cfrac12%28%5Cln%20y%29%5E2%7D%5C%2C%5Cmathrm%20dy)
Let 
, so that 
and 
:
![E[Y^n]=\displaystyle\frac1{\sqrt{2\pi}}\int_{-\infty}^\infty e^{nu}e^{-\frac12u^2}\,\mathrm du=\frac1{\sqrt{2\pi}}\int_{-\infty}^\infty e^{nu-\frac12u^2}\,\mathrm du](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=E%5BY%5En%5D%3D%5Cdisplaystyle%5Cfrac1%7B%5Csqrt%7B2%5Cpi%7D%7D%5Cint_%7B-%5Cinfty%7D%5E%5Cinfty%20e%5E%7Bnu%7De%5E%7B-%5Cfrac12u%5E2%7D%5C%2C%5Cmathrm%20du%3D%5Cfrac1%7B%5Csqrt%7B2%5Cpi%7D%7D%5Cint_%7B-%5Cinfty%7D%5E%5Cinfty%20e%5E%7Bnu-%5Cfrac12u%5E2%7D%5C%2C%5Cmathrm%20du)
Complete the square in the exponent:
![E[Y^n]=\displaystyle\frac1{\sqrt{2\pi}}\int_{-\infty}^\infty e^{\frac12(n^2-(u-n)^2)}\,\mathrm du=\frac{e^{\frac12n^2}}{\sqrt{2\pi}}\int_{-\infty}^\infty e^{-\frac12(u-n)^2}\,\mathrm du](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=E%5BY%5En%5D%3D%5Cdisplaystyle%5Cfrac1%7B%5Csqrt%7B2%5Cpi%7D%7D%5Cint_%7B-%5Cinfty%7D%5E%5Cinfty%20e%5E%7B%5Cfrac12%28n%5E2-%28u-n%29%5E2%29%7D%5C%2C%5Cmathrm%20du%3D%5Cfrac%7Be%5E%7B%5Cfrac12n%5E2%7D%7D%7B%5Csqrt%7B2%5Cpi%7D%7D%5Cint_%7B-%5Cinfty%7D%5E%5Cinfty%20e%5E%7B-%5Cfrac12%28u-n%29%5E2%7D%5C%2C%5Cmathrm%20du)
But 
is exactly the PDF of a normal distribution with mean and variance 1; in other words, the 0th moment of a random variable 
:
![E[U^0]=\displaystyle\frac1{\sqrt{2\pi}}\int_{-\infty}^\infty e^{-\frac12(u-n)^2}\,\mathrm du=1](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=E%5BU%5E0%5D%3D%5Cdisplaystyle%5Cfrac1%7B%5Csqrt%7B2%5Cpi%7D%7D%5Cint_%7B-%5Cinfty%7D%5E%5Cinfty%20e%5E%7B-%5Cfrac12%28u-n%29%5E2%7D%5C%2C%5Cmathrm%20du%3D1)
so we end up with
![E[Y^n]=e^{\frac12n^2}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=E%5BY%5En%5D%3De%5E%7B%5Cfrac12n%5E2%7D)
Answer:
you have $250 in market and bonds and $500 in stocks.
step-by-step explanation:
you split 1,000 into 4 quarter and take two of those quarters and there is what you invested in stocks and take one quarter for market and one quarter for bonds.
