Answer:
a) No
b) 42%
c) 8%
d) X 0 1 2
P(X) 42% 50% 8%
e) 0.62
Step-by-step explanation:
a) No, the two games are not independent because the the probability you win the second game is dependent on the probability that you win or lose the second game.
b) P(lose first game) = 1 - P(win first game) = 1 - 0.4 = 0.6
P(lose second game) = 1 - P(win second game) = 1 - 0.3 = 0.7
P(lose both games) = P(lose first game) × P(lose second game) = 0.6 × 0.7 = 0.42 = 42%
c) P(win first game) = 0.4
P(win second game) = 0.2
P(win both games) = P(win first game) × P(win second game) = 0.4 × 0.2 = 0.08 = 8%
d) X 0 1 2
P(X) 42% 50% 8%
P(X = 0) = P(lose both games) = P(lose first game) × P(lose second game) = 0.6 × 0.7 = 0.42 = 42%
P(X = 1) = [ P(lose first game) × P(win second game)] + [ P(win first game) × P(lose second game)] = ( 0.6 × 0.3) + (0.4 × 0.8) = 0.18 + 0.32 = 0.5 = 50%
e) The expected value
f) Variance
Standard deviation
Probly the first one it looks right
Answer:
0
Step-by-step explanation:
What divided by what equals 0? What divided by what equals 0? Specifically, what positive whole number (X) can you divide by another positive whole number (Y) to get 0? The answer is infinite.
Use distributive property:
Answer:
2.4*10+4.87*10
24+103
127
Step-by-step explanation: