Answer:
inverse relation of x is f⁻(X) = (x+15)/-6
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
1 11/24
Step-by-step explanation:
30/48+40/48=70/48=1 11/24
Answer:
the answer is -0.089 I think its correct
The ODE is exact, since
so there is solution such that
Integrating both sides of the first PDE wrt gives
Differentiating both sides wrt gives
Then the solution to the ODE is
# # #
Alternatively, we can see that the ODE is homogeneous, since replacing and reduces to the same ODE:
This tells us we can solve by substituting , so that , and the ODE becomes
which is separable as
Integrating both sides gives
and solving in terms of ,
Answer:
the answer is -7c - 2d - 6
Step-by-step explanation:
Simplify the expression.
Hoped this helped!
brainly, please?