Answer: 6 hours
Step-by-step explanation:
You would first start by making 1 3/5 into a mixed fraction. Getting 8/5. Then you’d divide that by 3/4 and get 6/5. Which then you’d multiply it by 5 and get 6 hours.
Answer:$17.40
Step-by-step explanation:
This is a very simple question. First since 70% is the amount of money removed, we do 100-70=30
30% is the price that remains. Change that into a fraction 30/100 and then multiply the original cost
30/100*58=17.4
The answer is $17.40
To solve for r, you would start by subtracting p from both sides.
2m - p = -q/r
Multiply everything by r.
2mr - pr = -q
Factor r out of the left side of the equation.
r(2m - p) = -q
Divide both sides by (2m - p).
r = 
.
The question is an annuity question with the present value of the annuity given.
The
present value of an annuity is given by PV = P(1 - (1 + r/t)^-nt) /
(r/t) where PV = $61,600; r = interest rate = 9.84% = 0.0984; t = number
of payments in a year = 6; n = number of years = 11 years and P is the
periodic payment.
61600 = P(1 - (1 + 0.0984/6)^-(11 x 6)) / (0.0984 / 6)
61600 = P(1 - (1 + 0.0164)^-66) / 0.0164
61600 x 0.0164 = P(1 - (1.0164)^-66)
1010.24 = P(1 - 0.341769) = 0.658231P
P = 1010.24 / 0.658231 = 1534.78
Thus, Niki pays $1,534.78 every two months for eleven years.
The total payment made by Niki = 11 x 6 x 1,534.78 = $101,295.48
Therefore, interest paid by Niki = $101,295.48 - $61,600 = $39,695.48
Answer:
1. 50%
2. 3%
3. 20%
4. 200%
Step-by-step explanation:
Here, we want to find the worth of each coin as a percentage of $1
We simply divide the worth by $1 and multiply by 100%
$1 is same as 100 cents
Thus;
1. 50 cent
= 50/100 * 100% = 50%
2. 3 cents
= 3/100 * 100% = 3%
3. 20 cents
= 20/100 * 100% = 20%
4. $2
= 2/1 * 100% = 200%
