Answer:
C 18
Step-by-step explanation:
1080/60 = 18
Let
x--------> the number of children
y------> the number of teenagers
z------> the number of adults
we know that
------> equation A
-----> equation B
-------> equation C
Substitute equation C in equation A and equation B
![2[\frac{4}{3}y]+3y+5z=1,950](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=2%5B%5Cfrac%7B4%7D%7B3%7Dy%5D%2B3y%2B5z%3D1%2C950)
--------> equation D
![[\frac{4}{3}y]+y+z=570](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5B%5Cfrac%7B4%7D%7B3%7Dy%5D%2By%2Bz%3D570)
--------> equation E
Multiply equation E by 
--------> equation F
Adds equation D and equation F
therefore
<u>the answer is the option</u>
The preferred gig is the first one since its today's worth is greater than the today's value of the second gig
What is the today's worth of $5000 each year?
The worth of the second gig, which pays $5000 every year for the next 6 years in today's dollar is the present value of all the six annual cash flows discounted using the present value formula of an ordinary annuity as shown below:
PV=PMT*(1-(1+r)^-N/r
PV=present value of annual payments for 6 years=unknown
PMT=annual payment=$5000
r=required return=discount rate=8%
N=number of annual cash flows=6
PV=$5000*(1-(1+8%)^-6/8%
PV=$5000*(1-(1.08)^-6/0.08
PV=$5000*(1-0.630169626883105)/0.08
PV=$5000*0.369830373116895
/0.08
PV=$23,114.40
The fact that the present value of the second option which pays $5000 annually is lesser than the amount receivable immediately, which is $25,000, hence, the first gig is preferred
Find out more about ordinary annuity on:brainly.com/question/13369387
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The answer is test scores
Answer:
What is the equation?
Step-by-step explanation:
