Answer:
A.
Dr Cash 266,178
Cr Sales Revenue 243,741
Cr Unearned Warranty Revenue 22,437
b)Current Liabilities:Unearned Warranty Revenue 90,579
Long-term liabilities:Unearned Warranty Revenue 181,158
Explanation:
Teal Company
A.
Dr Cash (814*327) 266,178
Cr Sales Revenue 243,741
Cr Unearned Warranty Revenue (277*81) 22,437
b)Current Liabilities:Unearned Warranty Revenue 90,579
(327×277)
Long-term liabilities:Unearned Warranty Revenue 181,158
(90,579×2)
Answer:
$2681.30 approx.
Explanation:
The first annuity is case of annuity due
For the first annuity, $2500 + 2500 × cumulative present value factor at 7.25% for 14 years
= $2500 + 8.6158 × 2500
= $24040 approx
The second annuity is the case of deferred annuity wherein payments are made at the end of the year.
Payment amount of second annuity = Present Value of first annuity ÷ cumulative present value annuity factor at 7.25% for 15 years
This will be equal to 24,040/8.9658 = $2681.30 approx.
The economy is currently in long-run equilibrium. If the central bank increases the money supply, in the long run the price level will raises.
<h3>What is long-run equilibrium?</h3>
The term “long-run equilibrium” is used in economics to represent a theoretical idea in which all markets are in equilibrium and all prices and quantities have fully adjusted to achieve equilibrium.
The long-run differs from the short-run, which has some limitations and markets that are not entirely balanced.
Currently, the economy is in long-run balance. If the central bank expands the money supply, the price level will rise in the long run.
Therefore, in the long run, the price level will raise as the central bank increases the money supply.
To learn more about the money supply, refer to:
brainly.com/question/14041873
#SPJ4
Answer: 7.67%
Explanation:
To solve this, the financial calculator will be needed
Present value = -896.87
Future Value = 1,000
N = [(25 - 5years) × 2 = 40
PMT = $45
Given the above information, we will press the financial calculator as we'll press CPT after which we then press I/Y and we'll get 5.11%
Then, the the firm's after-tax cost of debt will be:
= (5.11% x 2 )(1 - 0.25)
= (0.0511 × 2) (0.75)
= 0.07665
= 7.665%
= 7.67%
