Answer:
Hello! I hope I am correct! :)
Step-by-step explanation:
Let’s first calculate the black circle & the white space.
Since there is more white space than the black circle, we already know that the white space will have more probability.
These are the steps you need to do, in order to so love this problem:
1. Find the area of both, the white space and the black circle.
2. Divide both of them by the area of the square.
3. Do all these steps to find the probability/hitting.
Part A:
Black circle: ( π *1^2) / ( π 5^2) = 1/25 = .04 or 3.14% chance.
So we can tell it’s close to zero.
Part B: 1 - .04 = 0.96 or 97%
This is close to one.
(Remember I am not saying the exact, it’s a estimate)
Brainliest would be appreciated!
Hope this helps! :)
By; BrainlyAnime
Answer:
33 is the right answer
Step-by-step explanation:
May this help you
Answer:
options 3 and 6
Step-by-step explanation:
the exponent x+2 means that the graph moves to the left 2 units and the value of K, which is -4, means that the graph will then move down 4 units from the parent function f(x)
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation: