Answer:
Honestly um I started a few days ago yet dont know
Answer with Step-by-step explanation:
We are given that
For each real number
To prove that f is one -to-one.
Proof:Let and be any nonzero real numbers such that
By using the definition of f to rewrite the left hand side of this equation
Then, by using the definition of f to rewrite the right hand side of this equation of
Equating the expression then we get
Therefore, f is one-to-one.
Number 3 is 1/6 to role a 1 on the second roll is 1/36= 1/6 X 1/6
to get 2 on the third role is 1/216 so the probability is 1/216
<span>8(j-4)=2(4j-16)
8j - 32 = 8j - 32
Since both sides are equal, there are is an infinite number of solutions.
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