Answer:
1 length ityoughkdds hshlkb
This would not be binomial; the probabilities are not independent, since the balls are drawn without replacement.
Here, we want to express the given fraction as a decimal by the use of long division
We start by writing the long division sign
We place 5 on the left hand side outside and place 4 inside the long division sign
Now, as we know, 4 cannot divide 5 wholly as it is less than 5
We simply add a 0 at the top of the long division symbol, with a decimal point after it.
Concurrently, we place a zero after 4
Hence we have 40 inside the long division
Then we can divide 40 by 5 to get 8
The 8 now comes after the decimal point
Hence, our answer is 0.8
Pictorally, we can have the representation as follows;
(x + 2)² - 10 = 0 (assuming it's equal to zero)
Expand the binomial: (x + y)² = x² + 2xy + y²
Thus, x² + 4x + 4 - 10 = 0
x² + 4x - 6 = 0
(by quadratic formula)
, since we're taking the positive solution.