PLSSS HELP!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!URGENT!!!!! Jamie says that if she knows only the measure of one angle in an isosceles trian
gle, she can always determine the measures of the other two angles. Denise disagrees with her.
Who do you think is correct, Jamie or Denise?
Explain your reasoning. Include specific examples to support your answer.
1 answer:
Answer: Denise
Step-by-step explanation
This property is equivalent to two angles of the triangle being equal. An isosceles triangle therefore has both two equal sides and two equal angles.
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Which question I’ll answer in the comments
