Answer:
A.Pattern Department 57 per DLH
Cut and Sew Department 78 per DLH
B.Small glove 8.52
Medium glove 10.65
Large glove 12.78
Explanation:
a) Calculation to Determine the two production department factory overhead rates.
Pattern Department = 165,200/2,900
= 56.9 Approximately 57 per DLH
Cut and Sew Department = 273,000/3,500
= 78 per DLH
Therefore two production department factory overhead rates will be :
Pattern Department 57 per DLH
Cut and Sew Department 78 per DLH
b) Calculation of the factory overhead cost per unit
Small glove (57*.04+78*.08)=8.52
Medium glove (57*.05+78*.10)=10.65
Large glove (57*.06+78*.12)=12.78
Therefore the factory overhead per unit for each product will be: Small glove 8.52
Medium glove 10.65
Large glove 12.78
Question Completion:
A)Have no impact on the Net Cash from Operations as depreciation appears in both the Cash Flow and the Income Statement
B)Decrease Net Cash from Operations on the Cash Flow Statement
C)Increase Net Cash from Operations on the Cash Flow Statement
D)Just impact the balance sheet
Answer:
C)Increase Net Cash from Operations on the Cash Flow Statement
Explanation:
When Andrews increases the depreciation charge of $3,144,267 to a higher amount, this will decrease the net operating income. In computing the adjustment to net income for non-cash expenses, the increased depreciation will automatically increase the net cash from operations because of the tradeoff effects. So, on the financial statements of Andrews, specifically on the Statement of Cash Flows, the increased depreciation expense or charge will positively increase the net cash from operating activities.
Answer:
The correct answer is letter "B": pay differential.
Explanation:
Pay differential refers to the extra income received by an employee as a result of working out of the established working hours agreed in his or her contract. Pay differential is usually the monetary benefit a worker receives after working overtime or during a graveyard shift.
Answer:
Ans. The value of investment after 2 years is $3,155.51
Explanation:
Hi, first we need toconvert that 9.80 percent, compounded quarterly into an effective quarterly rate, that is just by dividing by 4, since there are 4 quarters in a year, that is:
r(effective quarterly)= 9.8%/4 =2.45%
Now, since the rate is effective quarterly, the periods (time of the invesmet) has to be in quarters, so we multiply 2 years by 4 and we get 8 quarters.
With all the above information, we can go ahead and use the following formula in order to find the future value of this investment.
It should all look like this.
So, the future value of this investment is $3,155.51
Best of luck.