Answer:
The correct answer is letter "A": Merchandise Inventory.
Explanation:
Lower-of-cost-or-market value is a strategy by which the costs of inventory on the company's Balance Sheet is reported at historical value -purchase cost- or market value, whatever it is lower. The lower-of-cost-or-market approach considers the value of inventory can change, meaning it can increase but it can decrease as well. For both purposes, the lower-of-cost-or-market value can be used. This technique follows the Generally Accepted Accounting Principles (GAAP).
Therefore, <em>merchandise inventory, which can fluctuate in price during a period, is reported using the lower-of-cost-or-market value method.</em>
They have many potential <u>Entry Modes</u> at their disposal.
<h3>What is Entry Mode?</h3>
Foreign market entrance modes in international trade are the methods through which a corporation can expand its services into a non-domestic market.
Market entrance options are classified into two types: equity and non-equity. Export and commercial agreements are examples of non-equity mechanisms. Joint ventures and totally owned subsidiaries are examples of equity models. Different entrance mechanisms differ in three key ways:
- The level of danger they pose.
- Control and dedication to the resources required.
- The promised return on investment
Therefore, Companies like my gym, which seek to do business in new markets for manufacturing and/or marketing purposes, have many potential <u>Entry Modes</u> at their disposal.
For more information on Entry Modes, refer to the given link:
brainly.com/question/17232113
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Answer: I found Optimum Internet advertisement effective.
Explanation: I found optimum internet effective because not only does it cost less but it's a good deal.
I really don't know if this is will help but that's what I find effective.
Answer:
The lump sum payment = $23,585.49
Explanation:
The winning lottery is an example of an advanced annuity. <em>An advanced annuity is a series of cash flows that occurs for a certain number of years with the first cash flow occurring now.</em>
The first cash flow is represents one out of the five, so the balance is a four-year annuity.
So we can work out the present value of the annuity for the last four years as follows:
PV = (1 - (1+r)^(-n)/r ) × Annual cash flow
r = 3%=0.03, n = 4, Annual cash flow = 5000
PV = (1- ((1+0.03)^(-4))/0.03) × 5,000
= 3.7170 × 5,000
=$ 18,585.49
The lump sum payment = PV of the first payment + PV of the four year annuity
The lump sum payment = $5000 + $ 18,585.49
= $23,585.49
Answer:
d.funded status relative to the accumulated benefit obligation.
Explanation:
Employees should be informed funded status relative to the accumulated benefit.
