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2 years ago

Is 40/48 and 56/42 proportional

Mathematics

2 answers:

Lunna [17]2 years ago

3 0

The first fraction is under 1 whole while the second fraction is over 1 whole.

40/48 and 1 14/42 is what this is equal to.

May I have brainliest please? :)

prohojiy [21]2 years ago

3 0

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

the two fractions go down to

40/48= 5/6

56/42= 8/7

So, No

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Answer:

Part a)

Mean: 13155.6

Mode:None

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Step-by-step explanation:

12700 : 1

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Mean :

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Mode:

All values are distinct, therefore there is no mode. A mode is value which occurs most frequently.

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Arrange the values in ascending order:

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The mid value is median: 12700

Part b)

It depends upon the data. In this question the best way to predict how many miles Gina will drive in the next years is by using Median of the data.

The reason is that there is a potential outlier in the data i.e 15478. In case of outlier median tends to give better predictions.

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