Answer:
33.6 m
Explanation:
Given:
v₀ = 0 m/s
a = 47.41 m/s²
t = 1.19 s
Find: Δx
Δx = v₀ t + ½ at²
Δx = (0 m/s) (1.19 s) + ½ (47.41 m/s²) (1.19 s)²
Δx = 33.6 m
Answer:
v_max = (1/6)e^-1 a
Explanation:
You have the following equation for the instantaneous speed of a particle:
(1)
To find the expression for the maximum speed in terms of the acceleration "a", you first derivative v(t) respect to time t:
![\frac{dv(t)}{dt}=\frac{d}{dt}[ate^{-6t}]=a[(1)e^{-6t}+t(e^{-6t}(-6))]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cfrac%7Bdv%28t%29%7D%7Bdt%7D%3D%5Cfrac%7Bd%7D%7Bdt%7D%5Bate%5E%7B-6t%7D%5D%3Da%5B%281%29e%5E%7B-6t%7D%2Bt%28e%5E%7B-6t%7D%28-6%29%29%5D)
(2)
where you have use the derivative of a product.
Next, you equal the expression (2) to zero in order to calculate t:
![a[(1)e^{-6t}-6te^{-6t}]=0\\\\1-6t=0\\\\t=\frac{1}{6}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=a%5B%281%29e%5E%7B-6t%7D-6te%5E%7B-6t%7D%5D%3D0%5C%5C%5C%5C1-6t%3D0%5C%5C%5C%5Ct%3D%5Cfrac%7B1%7D%7B6%7D)
For t = 1/6 you obtain the maximum speed.
Then, you replace that value of t in the expression (1):
hence, the maximum speed is v_max = ((1/6)e^-1)a
Answer:
The mechanical advantage of a machine is the ratio of the load (the resistance overcome by a machine) to the effort (the force applied). For an ideal (without friction) mechanism, it is also equal to: There is no unit for mechanical advantages since the unit for both input and output forces cancel out.
Explanation:
The calculated mutual inductance is 8.544 x 10⁻⁵ H.
Two coils have a mutual inductance of 1 henry when emf of 1 volt is induced in coil 1 and when the current flowing through coil 2 is changing at the rate of one ampere per second.
Length of the solenoid= 5.0 cm
Area of cross-section=1.0 cm²
no of spaced turns=300 turns
turns of insulated wire=180 turns
Mutual inductance (M) = μ₀μr N1N2 A/ L
=(4xπx 10⁻⁷) x (6.3 x 10⁻³) x 300 x 180 x 1/ 5
=79.12 x 10⁻¹⁰ x 54000 / 5
=8.544 x 10⁻⁵ H
hence, the mutual inductance is 8.544 x 10⁻⁵ H.
Learn more about Mutual inductance here-
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