We can’t answer the question because we need a graph or points.
True. I know for sure because it doesn't mean really anything
The answer is d)3 because each number gets multiplied by 3 to qual the next number
So firstly, find minus 1600 by 96 which = 1504 then divide 1504 by 1600 then times by 100 the percentage is = to 94%
Answer:
the answer would be 116.
This is because if half of the kernels popped you just multiply 58 by 2 to get 100 percent of the kernels.
I hope this helps! Please mark me Brainliest!
Step-by-step explanation:
