Answer:
1. B
2. A
Explanation:
1. the answer is lower higher.
when a note has been discounted, the person who issues it is going to get its value at maturity. in a situation where it does not bear interes, this is the face value and it is going to be reduced by discount. such that the cash received would be lower than the face value. but when it is repaid, effective rate would be higher than the value of the discount.
2. <u>a. The total future cash payments</u><u> </u><u>is</u> what be compared to the carrying amount of the debt to determine if the debtor should report a gain on restructuring. the other options do not answer this question.
Answer:
Read the explanation below
Explanation:
Dollar-cost averaging is based on the belief that prices of stock fluctuate around a normal level. Without this notion, it will not be possible to determine what can be seen as high or low now compared to the future.
The benefits of Dollar Cost Averaging attracts investors to employ. These benefits include:
1. It contributes on a regular basis to portfolios of investment.
2. The problem of market timing is eliminated especially for investors do not have time to track the market regularly or who lack the understanding of the market.
3. The cost basis to consumers on stocks whose values decline are is reduced.
4. It is easy to set up and not expensive especially for investors with no huge amount of money to invest. Like the example in the question, it easier for a salary earner to invest $500 monthly than investing $5,000 in a day.
Despite these advantages, dollar-cost averaging has its own disadvantages, and these include:
1. It has been found out in different studies that investor that can time the market correctly and invest a lump sum amount receive a higher return in the long run than what dollar-cost averaging can fetch.
2. The transaction costs paid by the investors significantly increased because of more number of different transactions when brokerage fee is high.
I wish you the best.
<u>A)</u><u> Capital inflow.</u>
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<h3><u>The inflow of capital: What is it?</u></h3>
Net purchases of domestic assets by non-residents, or the difference between purchases and sells, are referred to as capital inflows. Net foreign asset purchases by domestic agents, excluding the central bank, equal net capital outflows. The total of foreign direct investment into the domestic economy, portfolio investment obligations, and other investment liabilities is known as capital inflows. Capital inflows to developing nations increased dramatically in the early 1990s. Direct and portfolio investments were sparked by interest in nations with developing financial markets. The influxes were welcomed since they gave investors more chances for international diversification and helped developing nations finance domestic projects.
Learn more about capital inflow with the help of the given link:
brainly.com/question/15702923?referrer=searchResults
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Answer:
The standard cost is $5 per lbs
each units uses 2 lbs, so the unit stadard cost is $10
Explanation:
Volume variance
std quantity 2800.00 (1,400 units times 2 pounds per unit)
actual quantity 3000.00
std cost ??
difference -200.00
efficiency variance $(1,000.00)
-200 x Std cost = -1,000
Standard cost = -1,000/-200 = 5
The standard cost is $5 per lbs
each units uses 2 lbs, so the unit stadard cost is $10
Answer:
17.27 years
Explanation:
For this question we use the NPER formula that is shown on the attachment below:
Provided that
Present value = $340,000
Future value = $25,000
PMT = $35,000
Rate of interest = 7.5%
The formula is shown below:
= NPER(Rate;PMT;-PV;FV;type)
The present value come in negative
So, after solving this, the number of year is 17.27 years
