The price for each instructor will be the same at 3 hours. How I determined this answer:
First off, you need to add the initial price and hourly price for each person together, so you already know how much it will cost for 1 hour, including the initial fee. Here's how you do it:
Ieda: $11.00 (hourly price) + $8.50 (initial fee) = $19.50 (for 1 hour)
Thanh: $10.50 (hourly price) + $10.00 (initial fee) = $20.50 (for 1 hour)
Now that you have the price for 1 hour including the initial fee, now you need to find the price for each hour after that. Here's how I did that:
I created a graph that looked like this:
Hours: 1 2 3
Ieda: 19.50 30.50 41.50
Thanh: 20.50 31.00 41.50
Here's how I figured out the price for each hour:
Ieda:
Hour 1 (including initial price):
$11.00 + $8.50 = $19.50
Hour 2 (excluding initial price): Only add the hourly price after Hour 1!
$19.50 + $11.00 = $30.50
Hour 3 (excluding initial price):
$30.50 + $11.00 = $41.50
Thanh:
Hour 1 (including initial price):
$10.50 + $10.00 = $20.50
Hour 2 (excluding initial price):
$20.50 + $10.50 = $31.00
Hour 3 (excluding initial price):
$31.00 + $10.50 = $41.50
So, looking at the graph, their prices are the same once each instruction reaches 3 hours. ($41.50)
I hope I was able to help you! :)
I think the answer is y=10
Since f(x) is (strictly) increasing, we know that it is one-to-one and has an inverse f^(-1)(x). Then we can apply the inverse function theorem. Suppose f(a) = b and a = f^(-1)(b). By definition of inverse function, we have
f^(-1)(f(x)) = x
Differentiating with the chain rule gives
(f^(-1))'(f(x)) f'(x) = 1
so that
(f^(-1))'(f(x)) = 1/f'(x)
Let x = a; then
(f^(-1))'(f(a)) = 1/f'(a)
(f^(-1))'(b) = 1/f'(a)
In particular, we take a = 2 and b = 7; then
(f^(-1))'(7) = 1/f'(2) = 1/5
Answer:
y= -6/11x - 9
Step-by-step explanation:
y= mx+ b
