Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
Rearrange each function to solve for x.
Switch x and y,
The resulting equation is the inverse function.
A:
f(x) = y = 5+x
x = y-5
y = x-5
f⁻¹(x) = x-5
g(x) = 5-x ≠ f⁻¹(x)
g(x) is not the inverse of f(x).
:::::
B:
f(x) = y = 2x-9
x = (y+9)/2
y = (x+9)/2
f⁻¹(x) = (x+9)/2
g(x) = (x+9)/2 = f⁻¹(x)
g(x) is the inverse of f(x).
:::::
C:
f(x) = y = 2/x - 6
x = 2/(y+6)
y = 2/(x+6)
f⁻¹(x) = 2/(x+6)
g(x) = (x+6)/2 ≠ f⁻¹(x)
:::::
D:
f(x) = y = x/3 + 4
x = 3y - 12
y = 3x - 12
f⁻¹(x) = 3x - 12
g(x) = 3x - 4 ≠ f⁻¹(x)
g(x) is not the inverse of f(x).
Answer:
omg that question is impossible to answer
The equivalent fractions are 3/4 & 12/16 hope this helps!!
7-4=3
10-7=3
13-10=3
we can see that this is an arithmetic sequence with a difference of 3
the nth term=the first term +(n-1) times the difference
so a(n)=4+3(n-1)
Answer:
B. 0.602%
Step-by-step explanation:
Probability is essentially (# times specific event will occur) / (# times general event will occur). Here, we have a few specific events: draw a quarter, draw a second quarter, draw a penny, and draw another penny. The general event will just be the number of coins there are to choose from.
The probability that the first draw is a quarter will be 4 / (4 + 8 + 9) = 4/21.
Since we've drawn one now, there's only 21 - 1 = 20 total coins left. The probability of drawing a second quarter is: (4 - 1) / (21 - 1) = 3/20.
The probability of drawing a penny is: 9 / (20 - 1) = 9/19.
The probability of drawing a second penny is: (9 - 1) / (19 - 1) = 8/18.
Multiply these four probabilities together:
(4/21) * (3/20) * (9/19) * (8/18) = 864 / 143640 ≈ 0.602%
The answer is B.
