Answer:
NONE.
Explanation:
computer 3,000 debit
accumulated depreciation 2,000 debit
copy machine 5,000 credit
Because there is none commercial substance, it will be recorded wit the same book value fo the copy machine.
Gain and losses are only recognize if here is an expected change in the future cash flow. This is not the case.
Answer:
2.28%
Explanation:
initial outlay = $119,000 + $12,000 = $131,000
cash flows 1 - 5 = $25,000
Re = 12%
rate of reinvestments = 8%
using a financial calculator, the MIRR = 2.28%
if you want to calculate MIRR manually, you must solve the following:
MIRR = ⁿ√(future value of cash flows at reinvested rate / present value of negative values discounted at financing rate) - 1
- n = 5
- future value of cash flows at reinvested rate = $25,000 x 5.8666 (FV annuity factor) = $146,665
- present value of negative cash flows = $131,000
MIRR = ⁵√($146,665 / $131,000) - 1 = 1.0228 - 1 = 0.0228 = 2.28%
Business casual, you don't want to look too fancy, or anything.
Answer:
The correct answer is (A)
Explanation:
The cost which is directly associated with converting materials into a finished product is known as direct labour cost. The cost of wages paid to employees is the direct cost involved in the manufacturing process. In other words, a cost that is directly involved in the production of goods and services is the direct cost, for example, direct cost, direct commission, direct material cost.
