All categories

2 years ago

Write the inequality shown in the graph below:

Mathematics

1 answer:

alisha [4.7K]2 years ago

8 0

Answer:

.03x+-1=y becoz the line is crossing at about 0.3 and the y intercept is -1

You might be interested in

7. A triangle has sides with lengths of 10 metres,

Kay [80]

Answer:

It is not a right triangle.

Step-by-step explanation:

We can prove this by Pythagorean theorem because it represents to a right triangle.

Pythagorean theorem:

a² + b² = c²

Now substitute the values.

Note: the longest side will represent c

So,

a = 10 m

b = 16 m

c = 20 m

10² + 16² = 20²

The objective here is to make them equal.

100 + 256 = 400

356 ≠ 400

They are not equal so it is not considered a right triangle.

7 0

2 years ago

A. Original Price: $16.20

Tom [10]

Answer:

The final price is $ 22.68 And Proportional constant is 1.4

Step-by-step explanation:

Given as :

The Original price = $ 16.20

The rate of increase = 40%

Let The final price = x

Now,

Final price after increase = initial price × ( 1 + $\frac{\textrm Rate}{100}$

Or. Final price after increase = $ 16.20 × ( 1 + $\frac{\textrm 40}{100}$

Or, Final price after increase = $ 16.20 × ( 1.4 )

∴ Final price after increase = $ 22.68

Now , Proportional constant = $\frac{22.68}{16.20}$

I.e Proportional constant = 1.4

Hence The final price is $ 22.68 And Proportional constant is 1.4 Answer

4 0

2 years ago

The sum of two numbers is greater than either number ?

KonstantinChe [14]

N+n<8

is that what you are looking for?

4 0

2 years ago

A quiz consist of 2 true-or-false questions 3 are multiple choice questions. The multiple choice questions have 3 options each.

Ahat [919]

Part 1: 2×2×3×3×3=108 (c)
Part 2: 10×9×26×25×4=234000 (c)
Part 3: 10×9×8×7×6×5×4×3×2×1÷(3×2×1)=604800 (d)
Part 4: 11C4=11×10×9×8÷(4×3×2×1)=330 (a)
Part 5: ⅕=20% (c)
Part 6: 100-2.9=97.1 (d)

4 0

2 years ago

In the game of roulette, a player can place a $4 bet on the number 29 and have a 1/38 probability of winning. If the metal bal

creativ13 [48]

Answer:

The expected value of the game to the player is -$0.2105 and the expected loss if played the game 1000 times is -$210.5.

Step-by-step explanation:

Consider the provided information.

It is given that if ball lands on 29 players will get $140 otherwise casino will takes $4.

The probability of winning is 1/38. So, the probability of loss is 37/38.

Now, find the expected value of the game to the player as shown:

$E(x)=(140)\times \frac{1}{38}+(-4)\times \frac{37}{38}$

$E(x)=\frac{140-148}{38}$

$E(x)=\frac{-8}{38}=-$0.2105$

Hence, the expected value of the game to the player is -$0.2105.

Now find the expect to loss if played the game 1000 times.

1000×(-$0.2105)=-$210.5

Therefore, the expected loss if played the game 1000 times is -$210.5.

5 0

2 years ago