Answer: c. $81,202
Explanation:
The inflow will be annual and constant which makes it an annuity. Given the discount rate of 12% and a useful life of 8 years, the present value interest discount factor based on the table is = 4.968.
Option 1 present value
= 48,410 * 4.968
= $240,500.88
Option 2 present value
= 50,427 * 4.968
= $250,521.34
Option 3 present value
= 81,202 * 4.968
= $403,412
Option 3 is the closest option with the difference being down to rounding errors. The annual inflow would have to be $81,202 to make the investment in the equipment financially attractive.
Answer:
The value of the firm is $1,485,000
Explanation:
For computing the value of the firm, first, we have to compute the price per share which equals to
= Borrowed amount ÷ repurchase shares
= $220,000 ÷ 20,000
= $11 per share
Now, the value of the firm should be computed. The formula is used which is shown below:
= Price per share × Number of outstanding shares
= $11 × 135,000 shares
= $1,485,000
Hence, the value of the firm is $1,485,000
Answer:
The level that utilizes the "shotgun" approach to market coverage is:
Intensive Distribution (mass coverage).
Explanation:
This marketing approach aims to reach many consumers through as many sales channels as possible. In this situation, consumers have easy access to the goods or services. The other approaches include Selective Distribution (where few outlets in specific locations are selected for the distribution of the goods and services) and Exclusive Distribution (where limited outlets are chosen because of the target market).
Answer: $8,000
Explanation:
A special rule allows Michelle to classify up to $25,000 as losses against her nonpassive income.
If Michelle's modified adjusted gross income (MAGI) exceeds $100,000 however, the amount that exceeds the $100,000 will be reduced by 50% and deducted from the exemption allowed.
Loss deduction = Exemption allowed - [(Nonpassive income - MAGI limit) * 50%)
= 25,000 - [ (120,000 + 10,500 + 3,500 - 100,000) * 50%]
= $8,000