U didn't mess up....
V = pi * r^2 * h....divide both sides by (pi)r^2
V / (pi)r^2 = h
Answer:
infinite
Step-by-step explanation:
If you multiply all factors in the secon eqation by 4, you will get the first eqation.
Therefore for any value of x you can find y, thus having an infinite number of x,y pairs
Answer:
3.
Step-by-step explanation:
4$ = 1 pack
(think: what times 4 is 12? 3! so we need to muliply both sides of the equal sign by 3, so we can turn the 4 into a 12. Remember, what you do to on side, you must do to the other. )
4$ = 1 pack
*3 *3
12$ = 3 packs
so your answer is 3.
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
not sure srorry for replying dont look at this