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2 years ago

Which of the following describes one of the ways that the demographics of an area affect the price of housing in that area?

Business

2 answers:

jeka942 years ago

7 0

Answer:

An area with younger people will have a higher demand for rentals and a lower demand for buying.

Marta_Voda [28]2 years ago

3 0

Answer:

An area with lots of families will have a higher demand for houses than for apartments.

Explanation:

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Bruce is a part-time student (more than half time) enrolled at a qualified postsecondary educational institution. He files as a

Dmitry_Shevchenko [17]

Answer:

The answer is: $2,250

Explanation:

The American Opportunity Tax Credit (AOTC) is a tax credit available for students that are enrolled at a qualified educational institution. The maximum annual credit is $2,250 per student, and it can be used during the first four years of higher education.

4 0

2 years ago

Find the future values of these ordinary annuities. Compounding occurs once a year. Round your answers to the nearest cent. $200

PIT_PIT [208]

Answer:

Normal:

$ 3,509.7470

$ 563.7093

$ 2,000.00

Due:

$3,930.9167

$ 597.5319

$ 2,000.00

Explanation:

We solve using the formula for common annuity and annuity-due on each case:

$C \times \frac{(1+r)^{time} }{rate} = FV\\$

$C \times \frac{(1+r)^{time} }{rate}(1+rate) = FV\\$ (annuity-due)

First:

C 200.00

time 10

rate 0.12

$200 \times \frac{11+0.12)^{10} }{0.12} = FV\\$

$200 \times \frac{11+0.12)^{10} }{0.12}(1+0.12) = FV\\$

Normal: $3,509.7470

Due: $3,930.9167

Second:

$100 \times \frac{(1+0.06)^{5} }{0.06} = FV\\$

$100 \times \frac{(1+0.06)^{5} }{0.06} (1+0.06)= FV\\$

$563.7093

$597.5319

Third:

No interest so no time value of money the future value is the same as the sum of the receipts regardless of time or being paid at the beginning or ending.

1,000 + 1,000 = 2,000

4 0

2 years ago

Kirov, Inc. reports credit sales of $200,000 for the year ending December 31. The year-end unadjusted balance of its Allowance f

zubka84 [21]

Answer:

The correct answer is: $12,000

Explanation:

uncollectible debt = 6% of net sales

= 6/100 × 200,000

= 0.06 × 200,000 = $12,000

Therefore, $12,000 will be removed (debited) from the bad debt expense because it is uncollectible, and it is added (credited) to the Allowance for Doubtful accounts as bad debt to be paid for in the bad debt reserve account.

7 0

2 years ago

The overarching purpose of credit risk analysis is to: Question 11 options: a) Identify credit opportunities b) Determine a comp

Kamila [148]

Answer:

d) Quantify potential credit losses

Explanation:

Credit risk is the possibility of a loss happening because of a borrower's failure to payback a loan or meet up with contractual obligations. The overaching purpose of credit risk analysis is the quantification of the level of credit risk that the borrower poses to the lender. The purpose of credit analysis is to determine if borrowers are credit worthy by quantifying the risk of loss that the lender may experience.

Therefore option D is the answer.

6 0

2 years ago

Ruth, a cashier at a private bank, strongly believes that no matter how much effort she puts in or how many hours she works over

Citrus2011 [14]

Answer:

Ruth, a cashier at a private bank, strongly believes that no matter how much effort she puts in or how many hours she works overtime, she will not be offered a promotion in the next 10 years. In this scenario, Ruth's beliefs are in accordance with the expectancy theory.

6 0

3 years ago