Answer:
Ans. The average annual rate of return over the four years is 2.792%
Explanation:
Hi, first let´s introduce the formula to use
![r(Average)=\sqrt[n]{(1+r(1))*(1+r(2))*(1+r(3))+...(1+r(n))}-1](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=r%28Average%29%3D%5Csqrt%5Bn%5D%7B%281%2Br%281%29%29%2A%281%2Br%282%29%29%2A%281%2Br%283%29%29%2B...%281%2Br%28n%29%29%7D-1)
Where:
r(1),(2),(3)...n are the returns in each period of time
n =number of returns to average (in our case, n=4).
With that in mind, let´s find the average annual return over this four years.
![r(Average)=\sqrt[4]{(1+0.025)*(1+0.025)*(1+0.12)+(1-0.07))} -1=0.022792](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=r%28Average%29%3D%5Csqrt%5B4%5D%7B%281%2B0.025%29%2A%281%2B0.025%29%2A%281%2B0.12%29%2B%281-0.07%29%29%7D%20-1%3D0.022792)
Therefore, the average annual return of this invesment in 4 years is 2.2792%
Best of luck.
It's called an upselling
It's a common technique that a salesman/ marketing team use to increase profit with promise that the customer will get a better product or service
The example of an upselling is when you want to buy a cheap house, but the salesman manage to convinced you that buying another expensive house is good for your investment, and you buy the expensive one instead.
Answer:
d. A debit to Work-in-Process Inventory, Finishing Department of $140,000.
Explanation:
Cost of unit transferred = $4 x 35,000 = $140,000
Cost incurred by mixing department is $4 which so the transfer of cost from mixing department to finishing department will be $140,000 for 35000 units. This cost will be recorded in the work in process inventory account of finishing department. As we know that WIP account has debit nature so same entry will be done to record an expense incurred in mixing department.
Answer:
Option (A) is correct.
Explanation:
Money multiplier refers to the reciprocal of required reserve ratio.
The formula for determining money multiplier is as follows:
= 1 ÷ Reserve requirement ratio
If the households are desired to hold more currency in hand then as result the there will be leakage in the form of households holding cash with themselves.
Hence, this will lead to decrease the money multiplier because of higher reserve requirement ratio for the banks.
Answer:
The correct option is D
Explanation:
Under the method of allowance, the uncollectible accounts receivable will be recorded in the same accounting period as the sale of an estimate of the bad debt expense. So, the collection of the account which was earlier written off, will not have any affect on the income in the period or year it is received or collected.
