Answer:
107r³
Step-by-step explanation:
Find the future value
A=p (1+r/k)^kt
A=3,200×(1+0.024÷4)^(4×15)
A=4,581.72
interest earned
4,581.72−3,200
=1,381.72
Answer:
64,9
Step-by-step explanation:
From my understanding the pattern would be:
Every other number is the next consecutive odd number,
( 1, 3, 5, 7 ) are all of the consecutive odds. (So the next odd is 9. )
That when we get to the part of where we get every other number for the remaining numbers, if you multiply the next even number by itself (square it).
4, 16, and 36 ( they are all perfect squares. )
They are the perfect squares of ( 2, 4, and 6) . So it makes sense that ( 8 ) is the next even number and you would square that and get ( 64 )
I hope this makes sense!!
<h2>Answer :</h2>
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Answer:
6
Step-by-step explanation:
Hope this helps! Pls give brainliest!
