Answer:
1. True
2. False
Explanation:
A perfect competition is characterised by many buyers and sellers of homogenous goods and services. Market prices are set by the forces of demand and supply. There are no barriers to entry or exit of firms into the industry.
In the long run, firms earn zero economic profit. If in the short run firms are earning economic profit, in the long run firms would enter into the industry. This would drive economic profit to zero.
Also, if in the short run, firms are earning economic loss, in the long run, firms would exit the industry until economic profit falls to zero.
An example of perfect competition is the market for farm produce.
I hope my answer helps you
The opportunity cost of hosting these events is the next best alternative bundle of goods and services that could be provided.
<h3>What is meant by opportunity cost?</h3>
This is the term that is used to talk about the foregone alternative. It is what would have to be neglected because of another choice that has to be taken.
What this means is that the money that would have been spent on other aspects of the government was spent on the world cup so the benefits that the people would have gotten from the options are lost.
Hence we can say that The opportunity cost of hosting these events is the next best alternative bundle of goods and services that could be provided.
Read more on opportunity cost here
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Answer:
A. The demand curve will shift to the left, decreasing the price of beef.
Explanation:
- As due to the changes in the tastes and preferences of the consumers the change in the demands of the beef and prices will also decrease and the curve will shift to the left and so does the price of the good.
- <u>The reports showing the negative effects of the beef on the health of the consumer is likely to make the changes in the market price of the products.</u>
Answer:
The annuity will cost him $963,212.95.-
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Cash flow= $75,000
Interest rate= 0.0525
n= 20
First, we need to calculate the final value. We will use the following formula:
FV= {A*[(1+i)^n-1]}/i + {[A*(1+i)^n]-A}
A= annual cash flow
FV= {75,000*[(1.0525^20) - 1]/0.0525} + {[75,000*(1.0525^20)] - 75,000}
FV= 2,546,491.88 + 133,690.82= $2,680,182.70
Now, the present value:
PV= FV/(1+i)^n
PV= 2,680,182.70/(1.0525^20)
PV= $963,212.95
Answer:
A the MP curve shift up ,there is an upward movement along the IS curve
