3⋅35=n Express your answer as a simple fraction or improper fraction in simplest form.

A- 6=9. Please help

olchik [2.2K]

Answer:

a = 15

Step-by-step explanation:

6 + 9 = 15

a = 15

15 - 6 = 9

yes

3 0

2 years ago

Read 2 more answers

A store is having a sale on walnuts and chocolate chips. For 7 pounds of walnuts and 9 pounds of chocolate chips, the total cost

Jlenok [28]

Answer:

Walnuts cost $1.75, chocolate chips cost $2.75

Step-by-step explanation:

<h3>Let the costs be:</h3>

Walnuts - x
Chocolate chips - y

<h3>Set equations as per question</h3>

For 7 pounds of walnuts and 9 pounds of chocolate chips, the total cost is $37:

7x + 9y = 37

For 5 pounds of walnuts and 3 pounds of chocolate chips, the total cost is $17:

5x + 3y = 17

<h3>Solve the system by elimination</h3>

Multiply the second equation by 3 and subtract the first equation, solve for x:

3(5x + 3y) - (7x + 9y) = 3(17) - 37
15x + 9y - 7x - 9y = 51 - 37
8x = 14
x = 14/8
x = 1.75

Find the value of y:

7*1.75 + 9y = 37
12.25 + 9y = 37
9y = 37 - 12.25
9y = 24.75
y = 24.75/9
y = 2.75

6 0

1 year ago

Write the ratio 6ft to 4 yd as a fraction in simplest form

vlabodo [156]

6:4 or 3:2 is the answer

5 0

2 years ago

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A real estate agent has 14 properties that she shows. She feels that there is a 50% chance of selling any one property during a

Ratling [72]

Answer:

91.02% probability of selling more than 4 properties in one week.

Step-by-step explanation:

For each property, there are only two possible outcomes. Either it is sold, or it is not. The chance of selling any one property is independent of selling another property. So we use the binomial probability distribution to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

$P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}$

In which $C_{n,x}$ is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

$C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}$

And p is the probability of X happening.

In this problem we have that:

$n = 14, p = 0.5$

Compute the probability of selling more than 4 properties in one week.

Either you sell 4 or less properties in one week, or you sell more. The sum of the probabilities of these events is decimal 1. So

$P(X \leq 4) + P(X > 4) = 1$

We want to find $P(X > 4)$ . So

$P(X > 4) = 1 - P(X \leq 4)$

In which

$P(X \leq 4) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2) + P(X = 3) + P(X = 4)$

So

$P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}$

$P(X = 0) = C_{14,0}.(0.5)^{0}.(0.5)^{14} = 0.000061$

$P(X = 1) = C_{14,1}.(0.5)^{1}.(0.5)^{13} = 0.000854$

$P(X = 2) = C_{14,2}.(0.5)^{2}.(0.5)^{12} = 0.0056$

$P(X = 3) = C_{14,3}.(0.5)^{3}.(0.5)^{11} = 0.0222$

$P(X = 4) = C_{14,4}.(0.5)^{4}.(0.5)^{10} = 0.0611$

So

$P(X \leq 4) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2) + P(X = 3) + P(X = 4) = 0.000061 + 0.000854 + 0.0056 + 0.0222 + 0.0611 = 0.0898$

Finally

$P(X > 4) = 1 - P(X \leq 4) = 1 - 0.0898 = 0.9102$

91.02% probability of selling more than 4 properties in one week.

8 0

2 years ago

What function would represent a translation of this graph of y=x^2 by 8 units to the right?

Anit [1.1K]

Answer:

$y = (x-8)^2$

5 0

3 years ago