Answer:
Find answers below.
Explanation:
Risk management can be defined as the process of identifying, evaluating, analyzing and controlling potential threats or risks present in a business as an obstacle to its capital, revenues and profits. This ultimately implies that, risk management involves prioritizing course of action or potential threats in order to mitigate the risk that are likely to arise from such business decisions.
Price risk is the risk of a decline in a bond's value due to an increase in interest rates. This risk is higher on bonds that have long maturities than on bonds that will mature in the near future.
Reinvestment risk is the risk that a decline in interest rates will lead to a decline in income from a bond portfolio. This risk is obviously high on callable bonds. It is also high on short-term bonds because the shorter the bond's maturity, the fewer the years before the relatively high old-coupon bonds will be replaced with new low-coupon issues. Which type of risk is more relevant to an investor depends on the investor's investment horizon, which is the period of time an investor plans to hold a particular investment. Longer maturity bonds have high price risk but low reinvestment risk, while higher coupon bonds have a higher level of reinvestment risk and a lower level of price risk. To account for the effects related to both a bond's maturity and coupon, many analysts focus on a measure called duration, which is the weighted average of the time it takes to receive each of the bond's cash flows.
The bonds which would have the largest duration is a 10 year - zero coupon bond.
Answer:
Price decreases and demand increases
Explanation:
After achieving a required profit, stores usually start to sell their products on sale. A sale is an opportunity for the buyers to buy goods and services at low prices. Price and demand have an inverse relationship, that is why, on sale, the price decreases and moves the point down, whereas, the increase in the demand moves the point up.
Answer:
Angela has not worked for her employer long enough to demand leave.
Explanation:
Since angela is approx nine month pregnant and she worked on a full time basis for the last eight month also she wants to take the off for the nine weeks so as per the family medical leave act, the problem that could be seen is that she is not worked for her also the employer is sufficient for demanding the leave
Therefore the above statement should be correct
Answer:
2.42 times
Explanation:
The computation of the acid test ratio is shown below:
Acid test ratio = Quick Assets ÷ Current liabilities
where,
Quick Assets = Cash + short term investment + account receivable
= $4,500 + $50,500 + $66,000
= $121,000
And, the current liabilities is $50,000
So the acid test ratio is
= $121,000 ÷ 50,000
= 2.42 times
Basically we applied the above formula to find out the acid test ratio