Answer:
The summary of the accident, calculate the total dollar value of the property damage Stephanie caused is explained below in detail.
Explanation:
The term 100/300/100 coverage indicates that a character has coverage of $100,000 physical damage mortgage coverage per person, $300,000 total physical damage mortgage insurance per accident, and $100,000 property loss accountability per accident.
So, in case Stephanie prompted a property and accident destruction, then $1,00000 will be sustained by the insurance corporation and above this value, it will be paid by Stephanie.
Answer:
Effect on income= -$18,000
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Granfield Company has a piece of manufacturing equipment with a book value of $36,000 and a remaining useful life of four years. At the end of the four years, the equipment will have a zero salvage value. The market value of the equipment is currently $21,200. Granfield can purchase a new machine for $112,000 and receive $21,200 in return for trading in its old machine. The new machine will reduce variable manufacturing costs by $18,200 per year over the four-year life of the new machine.
Year 0= -112,000 + 21,200= -90,800
Year 1 to 4= 18,200*4= 72,800
Effect on income= -90,800 + 72,800= -18,000
The answer to the question is Semiannually
This means that a final Incident Response plan should be tested a minimum of two times every year by performing a structured walk-through test at least, and when possible, perform a more realistic type of test.
Answer: 49.10 pee unit
Explanation:
Direct materials = $14.30
Add: Direct labor = 23.90
Add: Variable manufacturing overhead = 3.00
Add: Avoidable overhead = 28.30 - 28.40 = 0.10
Avoidable cost = 41.10
The maximum amount that the company should be willing to pay an outside supplier per unit for the part if the supplier commits to supplying all 53,000 units required each year will be:
= 41.10 × 53000 + 424,000 / 53000
= 49.1 per unit
Answer:
$240; $160
Explanation:
The computation is shown below:
As we know that
if there is 40% of money engaged in the risk portfolio is
= $1000 × 40%
= $400
Now amount in X is
= $400 × 0.60
= $240
And, the amount in Y is
= $400 × 0.40
= $160
hence, the last option is correct
All other valeus i.e. given in the question is not relevant. hence, ignored it
